Quiz Step 1 of 54 1% 1. An ATPL licence holder in a Commuter Operation may exercise what privileges as a flight crewmember?* They may act as the chief pilot. They may act as PIC or SIC with a valid Group 1 instrument rating. They may act as a training pilot. They may act as PIC or SIC in night VFR regardless of the validity of their instrument rating. 2. A 46 year old ATPL license holder must conduct which of the following to maintain a category 1 medical?* A medical exam every 12 months, an ECG every 12 months, and an audiogram every 5 years. A medical exam every 6 months, an ECG every 24 months, and an audiogram as required. A medical exam every 12 months, an ECG every 12 months, and an audiogram as required. A medical exam every 6 months, an ECG every 12 months, and an audiogram every 5 years. 3. What privileges may an ATPL holder exercise should his/her CAT 1 medical validity lapse?* Private pilot privileges. Commercial pilot privileges. All flying privileges are suspended. Commercial pilot privileges but only for flight training purposes. 4. The minimum night time required to obtain the ATPL is?* 200 hours, of which 100 must be PIC. 75 hours, of which 25 must be PIC. 100 hours, of which 30 must be in aeroplanes. 100 hours, of which 35 may have been acquired in helicopters. 5. What is the definition of a LARGE aircraft?* An aeroplane with an MCTOW of more than 5700 kg or 12,566 lbs An aeroplane requiring more than two flight crew members. An aeroplane with an MCTOW of more than 12,566 kg or 27700 lbs. An aeroplane with turbine engines with an MCTOW of more than 5000 kg. 6. A Mandatory Reportable incident pertains to what aircraft?* Aircraft with a MCTOW greater than 2250 kg. Aircraft with a MCTOW less than 2250 kg. Aircraft operating IFR under commercial 703 operations. All aircraft carrying passengers. 7. Following an aviation incident or accident should the pilot report the details to the TSB?* Yes, if a person is injured. No, Transport Canada will automatically contact the TSB No, Nav Canada will alert the TSB as soon as they are notified by the quickest means practicable. Yes, as soon as possible and by the quickest means available. 8. Pilots operating in in Controlled high level Airspace if not assigned a code should set their transponder to…* 1000 2000 1200 1400 9. What are the next 3 RVSM altitudes above FL290 for a Commercial carrier whose track is 150˚M?* FL300, FL310, FL320 FL330, FL370, FL410. FL 310, FL330, FL350. FL310, FL330, FL370 10. Which of the following equipment are not required to be operational prior to entering RVSM airspace?* Automatic altitude control system. Altitude alerting system. Two independent altimeters. They are all required to be operational 11. A non RVSM aircraft may be approved to operate in RVSM airspace if ATC provides the aircraft with ________________ feet of separation from same direction traffic and _______________ feet of separation from opposite direction traffic. (Fill in the blanks with the options below)* 7000; 4500 4000; 2000 4500;2500 1000; 2000 12. What are the altitude bases of the Southern Control area, Northern Control Area and Arctic Control Area?* FL180 for all three FL180, FL230, FL230 FL180, FL270, FL230 FL180, FL230, FL270 13. What are the dimensions of a Low Level Airway based on two VORs?* 8 NM wide until 50.8 NM, with a diverging angle of 4.5° on either side 4.34 NM wide on either side of the centerline until 49.66 NM, with a diverging angle of 5° on either side 8.68 NM wide 50.8 NM, with a diverging angle of 5° on either side. 4 NM wide on either side of the centerline until 49.66 NM, with a diverging angle of 4.5° on either side 14. What are the dimensions of a Low Level Airway based upon NDB’s?* 8 NM wide until 50.8 NM, with a diverging angle of 4.5° on either side. 8.68 NM wide 50.8 NM, with a diverging angle of 5° on either side. 4.34 NM wide on either side of the centerline until 49.66 NM, with a diverging angle of 5° on either side. 4 NM wide on either side of the centerline until 49.66 NM, with a diverging angle of 4.5° on either side. 15. A Terminal Control Area’s vertical dimensions can extend from…….* 700 feet ASL up into the high level airspace. The ground up until Class B airspace. 700 feet AGL up into the high level airspace. From any prescribed altitude to any altitude as long as it is labelled on navigational charts. 16. What airspace is classified as “B”?* Airspace around a controlled airport when the tower is closed. Airspace that excludes VFR aircraft from operating. All low level controlled airspace above 12 500 feet ASL or at and above the MEA, whichever is higher, up to but not including 18 000 feet ASL. All low level controlled airspace at or above 12 500 feet ASL or at and above the MEA, whichever is higher, up to and including 18 000 feet ASL. 17. Class "D" airspace is normally associated with...* Airports in class C airspace when ATC unit is not in operation. Controlled airspace within which VFR and IFR flights are permitted. Aerodromes where ATC provides separation between IFR and VFR aircraft. Airspace that is above FL600. 18. For arrival at an airport in the Standard Pressure Region an aircraft’s altimeter shall be set to the….* Local altimeter setting once descent in the circuit is commenced. Standard pressure setting at all times. Local altimeter setting once the aircraft is commencing its final descent with the intention to land. Local altimeter setting once commencing descent from cruise. 19. When flying from the Standard Pressure Region to the Altimeter Setting Region either vertically or horizontally pilots should set their altimeter to the __________ altimeter setting __________ entering the altimeter setting region. (Fill in the blanks with the options below.)* current; prior to current; immediately after 29.92; immediately after 29.92; prior to 20. What is the minimum flight planning altitude for flights operating on Airways and Air Routes during the winter months?* The lowest altitude that ensures navigational signal coverage. The MOCA if the flight is conducted wholly in southern Ontario. The nearest altitude or flight level consistent with the direction of flight, that is at or above the MEA. 1 000 feet above the minimum IFR altitude. 21. When an altimeter setting greater than 31.00" Hg exists, to determine the suitability or an aerodrome, the ceiling requirement must be ____________ by __________ feet, and visibility requirements ____________ by __________ SM for each 0.10" Hg over 31.00".* decreased; 100; decreased; 1/4 increased: 300; increased; 1/2 increased; 100; increased; 1/4 decreased 300; decreased; 1/2 22. What are the ETA and Track tolerance requirements for operation within an ADIZ?* +/- 5 minutes, +/- 20 NM +/- 3 minutes, +/- 20 NM +/- 5 minutes, +/- 10 NM +/- 3 minutes, +/- 10 NM 23. A MEDIUM aircraft for wake turbulence categorization purposes has what weight range?* Greater than 1000 kg to less than 142 000 kg. Greater than 7000 kg to less than 136 000 kg. Greater than 5000 kg to less than 129 000 kg. Greater than 18 000 kg to less than 250 000 kg. 24. What is the minimum separation applied for a radar departure of a light A/C behind a medium A/C?* 4 SM. 5 NM. 4 NM. No separation is provided behind medium aircraft. 25. What is the separation applied for a radar departure of a light A/C behind a heavy A/C?* 8 NM. 8 SM. 6 SM. 6 NM. 26. What is the separation applied for the non-radar departure of a light A/C behind a heavy A/C?* Since there is no radar, ATC is not able to determine wake turbulence suitability. 2 minutes if the aircraft commences the takeoff from an intersection. 3 minutes, but only if the light aircraft commences the takeoff from an intersection. All of the above 27. For non-radar departures, what separation do controllers apply for a heavy A/C behind a super heavy (A380)?* 3 minutes. 2 minutes. 4 minutes. No separation. 28. For non-radar departures, controllers apply ______ minutes of separation for a light A/C that commences its takeoff roll from an intersection behind a heavy A/C that commence from the threshold? (Fill in the blank with the options below)* 5 4 2 3 29. When operating below 3,000 feet AGL within 10 NM of a controlled aerodrome, the maximum speed that an aircraft may be operated at is:* 200 KIAS 250 KIAS There is no speed restriction. Vne 30. The maximum speed to operate an aircraft flying below 10,000 feet ASL in Canada is?* Mach 0.9. 250 KIAS, or MMO, whichever is lesser. 250 KIAS, or the minimum safe speed, whichever is greater. 200 KIAS 31. The maximum IAS for a civil turbojet aircraft holding at 14,000 feet ASL is?* 175 KIAS. 310 KIAS. 265 KIAS. 230 KIAS. 32. ATC is to be notified of changes to flight planned TAS when the TAS changes by _______ or more. (Fill in the blanks with the options below)* 2% 10% 3% 5% 33. ATC is to be notified of changes to an assigned Mach number when the Mach number changes by _______ or more. (Fill in the blanks with the options below)* .01 .05 .03 .02 34. Where can you find the dimensions of an MF Area associated with an airport?* It is always the same dimensions, which are specified in the AIM as a 5 NM radius capped at 3 000 feet AAE. The dimensions are specified in the back of the CFS under a list of aerodromes in which an MF is in effect. The dimensions change throughout different seasons due to altimeter error, so ATC must be asked for the dimensions based on current temperatures. The dimensions are defined on the CFS page specific to the aerodrome. 35. An aerodrome in controlled airspace that has a designated Mandatory Frequency (MF) and has a FSS ground station would be classified as being what type of airspace?* Class A Class C Class D Class E 36. What frequency should be used at an uncontrolled aerodrome without a published MF or ATF?* 122.8 MHz 123.0 MHz 123.2 MHz 122.2 MHz 37. What are the reporting procedures for departures from uncontrolled aerodrome with a MF or ATF?* Report prior to entering the manoevring area, report departure intentions prior to moving onto the take-off surface, ensure by radio that no likelihood of collision exists on take-off, and report departing the circuit. Report once beginning to taxi, report taking position onto the take-off surface as well as departure intentions, report once airborne, and report departing the circuit. Maintain a listening watch on the frequency in use. Report departure intentions prior to moving onto the take-off surface, ensure by radio that no likelihood of collision exists on take-off, and report departing the circuit. 38. An RVR “A” installation will be located adjacent to what portion of an Instrument Runway?* Near the threshold. About the mid-point of the runway. About 2/3 down the runway. Near the landing rollout point of the runway. 39. Define the term “Movement Area” with respect to an aerodrome.* The part of an aerodrome, other than an apron, that is intended to be used for the takeoff and landing of aircraft and for the movement of aircraft. The apron of an aerodrome. The part of an aerodrome that is intended to be used for the surface movement of aircraft and that includes the manoeuvring area and aprons. The area of an aerodrome in which passengers embark and disembark. 40. How often should an A/C that is flying an east –west random route in the NCA make position reports?* North of 75˚N latitude, where 20˚ of longitude is traversed in less than 60 min, reporting line points are to be defined by parallels of latitude expressed in degrees and minutes coincident with meridians of longitude at 20˚ intervals South of 75˚N latitude, over reporting line points formed by the intersection of either whole degrees or whole and half degrees of latitude coincident with each 10˚ of longitude. As requested by ATS. All of the above. 41. What is the visual signal used by an intercepting A/C to indicate you have been intercepted?* The intercepting aircraft will fly inverted. The intercepting aircraft rock its wings from a position in front of the intercepted aircraft. The intercepting aircraft will abruptly break away from the intercepted aircraft, and cross the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft. The intercepting aircraft will fly 1000 feet in front and, normally, to the left of the intercepted aircraft. 42. Except for the purpose of landing or taking off, what is the minimum altitude for over-flying an airport? (See AIM RAC)* 2 000 feet AAE. 2 000 feet ASL. 500 feet above circuit height. 1000 feet AGL. 43. Except during take-off and landing, no person shall operate an aeroplane over a built-up area at less than __________ feet above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal distance of __________. (See AIM RAC) (Fill in the blanks with the options below)* 2 000; 1 000 1 500; 2 000 1 000; 2 000 1 500; 1 000 44. What is the difference between an ATC clearance and an ATC instruction? (see AIM RAC)* An ATC instruction must be accepted. An ATC clearance must be accepted. There is no difference. A TCAS RA does not take priority over an ATC instruction. 45. When must crew and passengers wear seatbelts in an aircraft?* During taxi, take-off, and landing. Any time any crew member advises it. During take-off and landing, as well as any time the PIC directs it. During take-off and landing, as well as any time there is a thunderstorm within 20 NM. 46. What is the definition of an Infant?* A baby weighing less than 10 kg (22 lbs.). A baby who is less than two years old. A baby who is less than 4 years old. A baby weighing less than 14 kg (31 lbs.). 47. What is the recommended practice to restrain an infant?* The infant should occupy an individual seat, with the restraint system securely fastened. The infant should be held securely in another passenger’s arms, with the restraint system securely fastened around both passengers. The infant should sit on the lap of another passenger, with the restraint system securely fastened around both passengers. A passenger shall securely fasten the restrain system around themselves, and hold the infant securely in their arms. 48. Consider an unpressurized aircraft that is flying at 12,000 feet ASL. After what period of time should flight crew members breathe from sealed oxygen masks?* The entire period of flight above 10,000 feet ASL. After 30 minutes at a cabin pressure altitude exceeding 10,000 feet ASL. They are not required to, they are below 13,000 feet ASL. It is at the discretion of the pilots, if they feel they are becoming hypoxic. 49. Above what altitude should all persons aboard an unpressurized aircraft be using sealed oxygen masks?* 10,000 feet ASL. 12,500 feet ASL. 13,000 feet ASL. 13,500 feet ASL. 50. When does an aircraft operated in a commuter operation require a functioning Cockpit Voice Recorder?* It is required by any multi-engined turbine-powered aircraft seating 6 or more passengers and requiring 2 pilots. Any time passengers are carried, including any employees of the operation other than the pilots. At all times, unless there is an MEL. Any time the flight data recorder is not operational, for a maximum of 90 days. 51. Which commuter aircraft are required to have a functioning FDR?* All aircraft. All aircraft carrying passengers. At all times, unless there is an MEL. It is required by any aircraft with a seating capacity of 10 or more, and manufactured after October 11, 1991. 52. What types of flights are permitted when altitude alerter is unserviceable?* Only on Cargo aircraft. Training, PCC and PPC flights. All flights. Only on Ferry flights. 53. When can you test a 406 MHz ELT?* Tests shall only be conducted during the first 5 minutes of any UTC hour. Test durations shall not exceed 5 seconds. They should only be tested in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions. They can be done according to your judgement. 54. What aircraft are required to have a Standby Attitude Indicator?* Any large aircraft. Any aircraft operated under an air operator certificate issued under Part VII of the CARs. Any transport category aircraft in commercial air service. Any aircraft flying at night.
